About Craig Blackmon

I am an attorney in Seattle, where I have practiced real estate law for over a decade. I own and operate my law firm, Seattle Property Lawyer, where I help people buy and sell homes without an agent (plus handle other legal issues relating to owning a home). I maintain the FSBO Law Center a web site for "for sale by owner" sellers and buyers. I am a licensed real estate broker and innovator in the real estate industry.

Do sellers really need to work THIS hard if they hire a “full service” agent?

A week ago (hey – I’ve been busy! 😉 ) there was an interesting piece in the Seattle Times, an “open letter” to sellers in the Seattle area. As you can see, the author believes that a successful seller will devote a SUBSTANTIAL amount of time to the project, even if the seller has hired a “full service” agent to list and sell the property.

This got me thinking: Is the author right? Should people expect to work this hard REGARDLESS of who they use as a listing agent? Seems to me that if a seller should expect to work this hard, then maybe that seller would be better off using a listing agent who didn’t pretend to “do it all” but who also charged a lot less for the service.

Or am I missing something….

“Good faith” negotiations and the Inspection Contingency

One of my great challenges as I build my RE broker practice is learning how to develop positive working relationships with other brokers. I’ll admit, a broker is a different animal than a lawyer. I think the difference flows from the fact that brokers to a certain extent are on the “same team” while lawyers are not. Brokers need each other to keep their clients on track towards closing, or neither broker gets paid. Lawyers, in contrast, get paid whether the deal closes or not. Transactional attorneys are not adversarial per se — at least not the good ones — but they retain their own self interest independent of opposing counsel. I think an absence of this “mutual interest” can foster a degree of conflict between brokers.

Since I don’t have that mutual interest with the opposing broker, I’ve tried to come up with a “work around,” some style that is consistent with what is expected of a broker. In that vein, it has been my understanding and experience to date that everybody expects the parties to negotiate in “good faith.” That term is of course extremely slippery and not susceptible to an easy definition. Its sorta like porn — hard to describe, but you know it when you see it. As a general rule, I think “good faith” requires the parties to negotiate realistically with the understanding that each side is genuinely interested in consumating the transaction on terms that are fair to all. If one side fails to live up to this standard, then the other side will perceive that they are not negotiating in good faith.

To date I’ve operated under the assumption that if I can faciliate good faith negotiations, then I’ll keep to a minimum any conflict between me and the other broker. What does that require in the context of the inspection contingency? Once the inspection has been performed and the defects noted, is that an opportunity to essentially renegotiate the price? Or should the negotiations focus strictly on the specific defects, their respective importance (e.g. safety issue vs. cosmetic), and the costs to repair? Or is even that too aggressive?

Any insight would be greatly appreciated. I just love “RCG University”…

Can you have a “contingent” offer without a bump clause?

As always, this is not legal advice. For legal advice, consult an attorney, not a blog.

First, my humble apologies to the Rain City Guide community. I have been grossly delinquent in posting to the site! My excuse: I had my very first jury trial on August 9. Thankfully, the jury came back with an excellent verdict in my client’s favor. When the smoke clears, I’ll post about the experience and some of the specific issues raised.

In the meantime, I came across what I believe to be a novel theory about contingent offers. Specifically, I was informed by somebody who should know that use of the Form 22B is “optional.” As background, the Form 22B, “Buyer’s Sale of Home Contingency,” is for use in a contingent offer where the buyer must sell his house before being obligated to complete the purchase of the seller’s house. By its terms, the Form 22B allows the seller to continue marketing the property (in part by noting “contingent” in the MLS). If the buyer receives another, non-contingent offer before the buyer has sold his house, the seller can demand that the buyer either waive the contingency (i.e. commit to completing the purchase even if his own house does not sell) or the contract will be terminated. Obviously, if the contract is terminated, then the seller is free to enter a new, non-contingent contract with the new buyer.

So, the Form 22B really protects the seller. What buyer wants to get “bumped”? Nobody, of course. But what if you represent the Buyer? It’s in your client’s interests to NOT have the bump clause — so can you draft a contingent offer without using the Form 22B? I’m curious to know what others think of the issue.

My thoughts: Absent use of the Form 22B, there is real ambiguity as to whether the contract is “contingent” at all. In the transaction that brought this issue to my attention, the buyer simply checked the second, “if this sale is contingent” box in Para 1 of the Form 22A Financing Addendum. In my mind, this is simply insufficient to render the contract contingent, so if the buyer is unable to complete the purchase there will be a dispute about whether or not the buyer gets the protection of the financing contingency. If, on the other hand, the buyer’s agent drafts a comprehensive Form 34 that addresses the issue, but that does not contain a “bump” clause, then I suspect the agent will have overstepped his authority to engage in the limited practice of law. But those are just my thoughts…

Bank-owned home? Make offer at your peril…

This is not legal advice. For legal advice, consult an attorney, not a blog.

It appears that the number of foreclosures in the area will continue at a high rate into the foreseeable future. Thus, there will be more and more bank-owned homes for buyers to consider. But from the perspective of an average buyer, is that a good idea?

In my experience, and from my perspective as a lawyer, the answer is an emphatic, “No!” Banks tend to be far more concerned with protecting themselves without regard for actually selling the property. Their required addendums — no changes allowed! — severely restrict the buyer’s remedies if the deal blows up, or if the house is a complete lemon, or even if the buyer’s financing fails. Banks tend to be remarkably inflexible in regards to negotiations. Indeed, they often refuse to sign ANYTHING until it has been signed by the buyer, even when it is their own addendum! Thus, negotiations are difficult, and the resulting contract is weighted heavily in the seller’s favor. Banks impose unreasonable requirements, such as mandating a photocopy of a cashier’s check of the earnest money, rather than just a personal check. As a result of the required contractual terms and the bank’s inflexibility, if the deal gets squirrely the buyer runs a very real risk of losing her earnest money.

Is this true of all banks, in all transactions? Almost certainly not. It has been, however, my experience to date. Are some banks more reasonable than others in this regard? Very probably, but I’ve only come across the difficult ones.

In fact, if you’re thinking of making an offer on a property managed and sold via First American REO Servicing — well, proceed at your own peril. Based on my experience, as well as the experience of others, First American is remarkably difficult to deal with and its actions can be, quite simply, irrational.

I recently assisted a client in attempting to purchase a house from a bank where First American was acting for the seller. I could author a dozen posts about this very unpleasant experience, but who has that kind of time? Instead, I will simply give two examples. When I received the bank addendum, the box for “cash sale” was checked, as was the box for “buyer financing.” Clearly this was an error, as these two boxes were inconsistent. The listing agent agreed that this appeared to be an error. I was concerned about this ambiguity in the contract (like any other competent attorney). I assumed it would be an easy fix. I was, needless to say, wrong. The bank flat-out refused to correct this error and demanded that the contract proceed with these mutually inconsistent terms.

Once under contract, my FHA buyer proceeded to seek financing. Unfortunately, a previous buyer about four months earlier had also sought FHA financing, so an appraisal had been performed. Per FHA rules, another appraisal cannot be obtained within six months of the first. We received essentially no information about this prior buyer or lender, and nobody was able to find this prior appraisal. Eventually, we had to seek a new FHA file number for the property, which would in turn allow for a new appraisal. Of course, all of this took time and naturally required an extension of the closing date. Did the bank agree to a short extension? Of course not. Huh? Ready, willing, and able buyer (who had invested significant time and money into the property) who had a good faith reason for seeking an extension — but the bank did not budge. The deal collapsed as a result, and my client’s earnest money is now hotly contested.

One would think that banks would be anxious to sell these assets. One would think that they would work cooperatively with buyers. One would think that banks would act reasonably and rationally. One would be wrong. In my experience, banks — or at least the individuals sitting at desks in distant states who are responsible for these files — are unreasonable and, in at least one instance, may even be irrational. Proceed with an offer at your peril.

Everybody LOVES bank fraud!

Is it just me, or do loan orginators routinely encourage bank fraud? First, the background: There are a variety of federal and state laws that make it a VERY serious crime to mislead a lender for purposes of getting a mortgage. At the federal level, 18 USC sec 1014 makes it a crime to “knowingly make any false statement or report . . . for the purpose of influencing in any way the action of” a commercial lender. (Emphasis added). The penalty? A cool million dollar fine and/or 30 years in federal prison. Yup, not a misprint: 30 years in Club Fed. On the state level, RCW 19.44.080 makes it a crime to “knowingly make any misstatement, misrepresentation, or omission during the mortgage lending process knowing that it may be relied on by a mortgage lender.” (Emphasis added). The penalty? Its a class B felony, so 10 years in the joint and/or $20 grand.

As indicated by these laws, as a society we cherish honesty to lenders and believe very strongly that anyone who is dishonest AT ALL in order to secure a loan has committed a very serious crime. The problem, of course, appears to be that nobody in the RE industry agrees. Rather, it appears that the RE industry treats this type of bank fraud (misleading a lender in order to facilitate getting a loan) to be something akin to taking a second serving of dessert: bad form, sure, but if nobody knows…

You may be thinking: “What on earth is Craig talking about? Everyone I know is honest and abides by the law!” Well, think further, and in particular think about a buyer’s inspection contingency response. The NWMLS provides a Form 35R specifically for resolution of the inspection contingency. By its terms, the 35R and any other notices or addenda relating to any modifications or repairs becomes a part of the contract, and of course the lender has the right to receive (and buyer has the obligation to provide to the lender) the entire contract.

How many agents out there have used the Form 35R to request repairs and/or price reductions? And have you gotten any feedback from the loan originator once he or she receives a copy of the signed form? I have. The 35R had the fourth box checked (buyer proposes modifications) and the text below, “Sale price reduced to $440k.” About as simple as can be — but apparently still likely to arouse the suspicions of the underwriters, thus complicating the process. The loan originator’s request? “Toss” the 35R and instead use a Form 34 for a simple price reduction.

The problem? That clearly violates the state law above, and probably the federal law too (at least it will when the buyer signs at escrow a statement indicating that he has provided the lender with all requested information, including a complete copy of the PSA). In other words, even LENDERS encourage violation of the laws designed entirely to protect lenders.

And one wonders how we inflated the housing bubble…..

If a picture is worth a thousand words…

Sign Pic
then what does this picture say? And who is the audience?

As professionals in this field, we understand the message. But I’m not so sure about the consuming public. What assumptions do they make about WaLaw, Windermere, and Chuck Houston? Do they know who represented the seller, and who represented the buyer? Do they know the relationship between WaLaw on the one hand, and Windermere and Mr. Houston on the other?

In sharp contrast, all of us (the authors of this blog, many of its readers, most of its commenters) know exactly the answers to these questions. WaLaw listed the property on the MLS, and Mr. Houston (licensed through Windermere) found a buyer. The seller paid WaLaw a sum of money. WaLaw then shared some (or, as in this case, most) of the money with Windermere, which then shared most of it with Mr. Houston. We get it. We perfectly understand the message sent by a “Sold by” sign hung on a yard sign.

So really, the audience must be us, at least in large part. Otherwise, the message would be re-worked to connect with the true audience and not just us. And this raises the question: What’s the point of providing us with this information? What do the “speakers” hope to gain from imparting this message?

Frankly, I’m not sure of the answer. I do know that, in the future, WaLaw will use its own “Sold” sign rather than the selling agent’s “Sold by” sign. That, in my mind, will simplify the message significantly and allow me to connect with the consuming public, the audience I want to reach. Hopefully, a layperson, when seeing the sign, will conclude only that WaLaw Realty helped this seller in selling her property. That’s the message I want to send, and as it stands now, I’m not sure that message is getting across.

Post Script: WaLaw will now be posting “SOLD

The Morality of Walking Away

This is not legal advice. For legal advice, consult an attorney not a blog.

I came across this interesting article in the Wall Street Journal, that bastion of conservatism. The article goes into some detail encouraging homeowners to just “walk away” from houses that are deeply under water (not literally, of course; rather, the owner owes much more on the property than what the property is worth). For the record, I agree 100% with the sentiment expressed by the author. Any successful business — or business person, for that matter — would not think twice about breaching a contractual obligation if fulfilling that obligation made no business sense whatsoever. In this regard, and as noted by the author, the economy is fundamentally amoral. It is high time that “regular” people take the same approach as the wealthy and Big Business.

That said, is it really a good idea? I’ve discussed the issue previously (in two parts). Here, I’ll only say that Washington is generally a non-recourse state, but that the situation is much more complicated if you have a second mortgage. Whether you decide to walk away or not, though, that decision needs to be based on what is in your (and your family’s) best financial interests. “Morality” should not factor into the equation.

The Financing Contingency: Does it disfavor mortgage brokers?

As always, this is not legal advice. For legal advice, consult a lawyer, not a blog.

First and foremost, let me admit my own ignorance up front as to exactly how a buyer works with a mortgage broker. Hopefully, someone with such knowledge and experience will clarify any errors below that result from my ignorance. Indeed, this post is for my own education as much as anything else.

In its current iteration, the financing contingency (NWMLS Form 22A) specifically defines “lender” as “the party funding the loan.” Thus, by its very terms, the term lender does not include a mortgage broker, since a mortgage broker simply brokers the loan (i.e., matches up a lender with a borrower) and does not actually lend any money.

So what’s the issue? Its two-fold. First, in paragraph 1 Form 22A states: “If Buyer changes the lender without Seller’s prior written consent after the agreed upon time to apply for financing expires, then the Financing Contingency shall be deemed waived.” [Only relevant portions of sentence included in quote.] If the buyer is using a mortgage broker, it is possible that the buyer will not have decided on a specific “lender” before expiration of the application period (by default 5 days but often shortened). In that case, the buyer may be deemed to have waived the contingency, or at a minimum the buyer may need to get the seller’s written consent for a lender selected after expiration. If seller refuses to give such consent, then the buyer may have waived the contingency. Note use of the word “may” as the form is ambiguous and open to some interpretation on this issue.

One the second issue, however, the risk is clear. If buyer’s financing fails, then per paragraph 4 the buyer must present “written confirmation from buyer’s lender” of the date of application, that buyer had the funds to close (i.e. the down payment), and why the loan was denied. I think its safe to say that a declining letter from a mortgage broker would not satisfy this requirement given the specific definition of “lender” in the form. So don’t rely on a letter from your mortgage broker (as many buyers do).

The upshot? If you’re using a mortgage broker rather than dealing directly with a lender, discuss this issue with your broker to confirm that you will still get the protections of the contingency. Make sure the broker will have “applied” for a loan on your behalf with a specific lender prior to expiration of the application period. And if the application is denied, make sure you get a letter so indicating from the LENDER, not just your broker.

New Construction — does that property even legally EXIST?

This post is not legal advice. For legal advice, consult an attorney in person and not via a blog.

I recently had the opportunity to submit an offer on behalf of a client for a new construction home. The price was right and the clients really liked the house. However, in preparing the offer it quickly became apparent that the developer had yet to record the short plat used to create each of the new parcels that contained the new construction (there were a total of three new parcels, each with a SFR).

Before I go further, and in case anyone is wondering “What’s a short plat?”: Generally speaking a short plat is the division of an existing legal parcel of land into smaller parcels. Depending on the jurisdiction (e.g., King County, City of Seattle, City of Bellevue, etc.) a short plat can consist of up to 9 new parcels. A short plat must be approved by the jurisdiction in which the property is located. Once approved and recorded, the short plat creates the new legal parcels of land.

So what’s the big deal in buying a property BEFORE the short plat is approved and recorded? Well, in that instance you’re buying property that is not yet a legal parcel. If for some reason the short plat is not approved or recorded, then you could be in for a real hassle in terms of paying taxes or dealing with the city or county in regards to your property. To be perfectly frank, I don’t know exactly howthat might play out, but I do know it would be a pain (and if you have to hire a lawyer, expensive). On the other hand (and perhaps a title insurer or escrow agent will weigh in here) its possible that the transaction would not close until the plat had been recorded.

But there is at least one other issue as well: A short plat can create additional legal interests (such as easements) in or restrcitions on the property. If you commit to buying the property before the short plat is recorded (by signing a purchase and sale agreement, which certainly can happen before the plat is recorded) you may be in for an unpleasant surprise. For example, what if you discover that you have a shared driveway?

The bottom line: Be careful in buying property that legally does not exist when you sign the purchase and sale agreement. At a minimum, any purchase and sale agreement for property that does not legally exist should include a contingency allowing the buyer to receive and approve the recorded short plat before closing.

The Statutory Warranty Deed: What You Should Know as the Seller

This is not legal advice. For legal advice, consult an attorney in person, not a blog.

In most instances, a buyer will take title to the property by a statutory warranty deed. As the name implies, this deed is defined by statute. That said, this statute merely codified the common law, which evolved over several hundred years (beginning in medieval England).

In any event, a statutory warranty deed includes several warranties, or promises, from the seller:

(1) That at the time of the making and delivery of such deed he was lawfully seized of an indefeasible estate in fee simple, in and to the premises therein described, and had good right and full power to convey the same; (2) that the same were then free from all encumbrances; and (3) that he warrants to the grantee, his heirs and assigns, the quiet and peaceable possession of such premises, and will defend the title thereto against all persons who may lawfully claim the same.

Given that this is pretty dense “legalese,” I’ll summarize: When a seller conveys title by statutory warranty deed, the seller warrants to (or promises) the buyer: (1) that the seller was the sole true and legal owner of the property; (2) that the seller had the legal authority to pass title to the buyer; (3) that the property is free from all encumbrances; (4) that the buyer’s ownership of the property will not be challenged; and (5) that the seller will defend the buyer’s claim of ownership if challenged. If one of these warranties is breached, then the seller will be liable to the buyer under the terms of the deed.

Of particular importance, a seller makes these warranties and will be liable for their breach even if the buyer knows of the breach at the time of conveyance. If the seller wants to limit these warranties and to exclude certain known breaches (for example, a known encumbrance), then the seller must do so in the deed itself. This is accomplished by a “subject to” clause in the deed.

If the deed does not identify an existing encumbrance in a “subject to” clause, then the seller faces liability immediately upon closing. For example, assume the seller and buyer are both aware of the fact that the neighbor’s fence encroaches five feet onto the property. Moreover, everyone knows that the fence has been there for 20 years. Thus, everyone knows that the neighbor has a very good adverse possession claim (i.e., the neighbor has a good claim that he has taken ownership of the portion of the property on his side of the fence). Regardless, unless the deed specifically excludes this claim from the warranties within the deed, the seller will still be liable to the buyer for this claim. The seller would have to pay for any defense of the buyer’s title (i.e., attorney’s fees and costs of litigation), and if the neighbor had taken title to the area then the seller would have to compensate the buyer for the resulting loss in value.

Thus, it is important that the deed by which the seller conveys title correctly excludes from the inherent warranties those defects on title that are known and exist at the time of closing. Of course, a buyer may object to a “subject to” clause that includes the known defect (such as the fence and adverse claim in the hypothetical above) because the purchase and sale agreement requires the seller to resolve such encumbrances. But if the seller simply folds on the issue and warrants against the encumbrance, the seller is not doing himself any favors. Rather, certain liability will result.